EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...

---

Question1: Three general categories for interpretation of communication could be described as:

Question2: In project management, the term quality is best defined as:

Question3: Project success criteria are best defined as:

Question4: Which one of the following is least likely to be a success criteria?

Question5: One difference between a project and business as usual is:

Question6: Which one of the following is a valid project Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?

Question7: What action can lead to more consistent communication in the project?

Question8: What would be the most direct symptom of poor quality in the project?

Question9: Which one is a true statement relating to project communications?

Question10: Which of the following statements about the business case is true?

Question11: When managing the internal context, the project manager should especially be aware of:

Question12: Which of the following would not be considered as part of the post project review?

Question13: Which type of projects needs to consider environmental constraints?

Question14: Which of the following descriptions particularly identifies a risk?

Question15: Which one of the following statements best describes communication?

Question16: What might be considered a disadvantage of virtual communication?

Question17: Which of the following would be considered as a valid objective for the post project review?

Question18: Which stakeholders are likely to form the main part of a project governance board?

Question19: A project is typically defined in terms of scope, time, cost and which other parameter?

Question20: When in the project life cycle should the deployment baseline be formed?

Question21: The question: 'Is the project actually following the processes and procedures as set out in the quality plan?' would be answered by?

Question22: What information would be expected as content for a business case?

Question23: Which of the following statements about the role of project sponsor is false?

Question24: 5 A. --> 5 B. --> 5D --> 5F
`-->4C. --> 4E --^
The total float of activity E in the above diagram is:

Question25: The project manager's prime responsibility is to:

Question26: An important aim of a post-project review is to:

Question27: Throughout the life of the project. issues that are raised are in the:

Question28: A project manager requires a team member to focus on the team's objectives and draw out other team members. Which of the Belbin's team roles is most appropriate?

Question29: Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels for a project?

Question30: The main purpose of configuration management is to:

Question31: Which one of the following is not considered in resource management?

Question32: Implementation of plans and verification of performance is most likely to occur in:

Question33: Which of the following is most true of the business case?

Question34: The role of a leader includes:

Question35: The phases of a project life cycle are:

Question36: What is likely to be a benefit to a project of having a communication plan?

Question37: Which one of the following best describes A. programme?

Question38: Which one of these categories would best represent project issues?

Question39: One disadvantage of physical communication is:

Question40: At which stage, in the Tuckman team development model, are team members clear and comfortable with their roles and responsibilities, and the project manager starts to see signs of the team working together?

Question41: What is a likely benefit of re-estimating throughout the project life cycle?

Question42: Which one Of the following statements about project risk is true?

Question43: In developing a network the first task after listing the activities is to...

Question44: Which one of the following best describes a project issue?

Question45: Which one of the following would best describe a post project review?

Question46: The responsibility for development and production of the business case is primarily with:

Question47: The purpose of a risk register is to provide a:

Question48: When in the project life cycle might analogous estimating be most commonly used?

Question49: Which statement regarding the purpose of the business case would be the most true?

Question50: What is the main benefit of using prototyping. time boxing or iterative thinking?

Question51: What is the main benefit of using a risk register in the project?

Question52: Who is best placed in the project to manage sponsor and user expectations?

Question53: In which phase of the project should the Procurement Strategy be written?

Question54: Which is one of the three key project constraints?

Question55: One purpose of risk management is to:

Question56: Stakeholder analysis supports effective stakeholder engagement by:

Question57: Which one of the following does project change control primarily seek to ensure?

Question58: Which of the following best describes a project's context?

Question59: Which one of the following statements is true?

Question60: Which one of the following statements is true?

Question61: Which of the following is a project?

Question62: Project reporting can best be defined as:

Question63: The purpose of a decision gate is to decide whether:

Question64: The main aim of quality management is to:

Question65: Which one of the following statements BEST defines procurement?

Question66: What is the importance of having a business case?

Question67: One of the benefits of developing communication plans in projects is that this ensures:

Question68: Which one of the following is NOT part of the handover process during the final phase of a project lifecycle:

Question69: What rule of thumb. can be used for ensuring that key stakeholders have been included in the process?

Question70: What is an example of a project management office activity that would be most likely undertaken to support a project?

Question71: A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as a...

Question72: Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

Question73: When a project has completed the handover and closure phase:

Question74: Which of the following actions would not help a team leader influence the performance of their team?

Question75: Which of these is a correct definition of an Estimate?

Question76: The value of a risk log lies in its ability to provide:

Question77: Which one of the following would be expected to form the main part of a risk analysis?

Question78: A project communication plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to:

Question79: Which of the following provides the project manager with a formal overview of project quality?

Question80: Which of the following defines the term 'deployment baseline'?

Question81: Which of these is likely to occur if the scope is poorly defined?
1. Additional time spent in the concept phase
2. Scope creep
3. Budget over/under runs
4. Scheduling problems

Question82: Key performance indicators (KPIs) are used for measuring how a project is progressing towards success and are monitored by project managers:

Question83: The project you are working on has chosen to produce an estimate using a detailed work breakdown structure (WBS). What estimating method is this approach commonly known as?

Question84: The post project review report should be:

Question85: Which of the following is an activity in a typical change control process?

Question86: The justification for the investment to be made in a project is documented in the...

Question87: One difference between an issue and a risk is an issue:

Question88: The implementation of risk management on A. project requires a cost allocation from the project budget.
Which statement describes the most representative return from such an investment?

Question89: When no other changes are being considered to the project, this is usually termed as a:

Question90: During project deployment, which process will provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards?

Question91: What is the main reason for an initial high-level review of a change request?

Question92: One advantage of virtual communications is:

Question93: Which one of the following is the best description of project scope?

Question94: A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as a:

Question95: When delivering a project the Project Manager has to balance which one of the following constraints:

Question96: To ensure communication is most likely to be effective in the project, the project manager should:

Question97: For successful risk identification to take place what must the project team know as a minimum?

Question98: To be considered effective. how should quality management be used in the project?

Question99: The primary purpose of a gate review is to decide:

Question100: An extended project life cycle can be defined as:

Question101: Communication includes:
1) exchanging information
2) managing stakeholders
3) confirming there is a shared understanding
4) building relationships within your team

Question102: Which one of the following statements about the project risk register is false?

Question103: How is project risk management best defined?

Question104: A project management plan could best be described as:

Question105: Which one of the following best describes project management?

Question106: The accuracy of an estimate should:

Question107: Project risk management is best described as:

Question108: In A. RACI coding format, what does 'A' stand for?

Question109: Successful project communications will most likely occur when:

Question110: While providing support to the project and attending a risk management workshop, the following statements were noted. Which one of these could be considered as a risk to a project?

Question111: A key aspect of managing a project involves:

Question112: Stakeholder analysis considers three aspects for each stakeholder. which are:

Question113: The purpose of project management is to:

Question114: What is the most likely reason a stakeholder may object to the project?

Question115: Which of the following is a purpose of issue management?

Question116: What is the likely decision to arise from the response stage of the risk management process?

Question117: Which of the following would be considered part of a configuration management process?

Question118: To effectively manage the project the range of documentation may appear to be extensive; however, the document that captures the why, what, where, when, how, how much and who for the project is called:

Question119: What is one of the most important aspects to establish about a stakeholder's interest in the project?

Question120: Which one of the following illustrates why effective project management is beneficial to an organisation?

Question121: Which of the following is true regarding differences between linear and iterative life cycles?

Question122: Which of the following is the correct sequence for the stages of a linear project life cycle?

Question123: Portfolio management includes prioritising:

Question124: An Organisational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is used to identify:

Question125: How should issues be prioritised?

Question126: Who would be typically described as the person or organisation best placed to deal with a risk?

Question127: Which one of the following statements is true?

Question128: What must happen when an issue is likely to result in a change of scope?

Question129: What action is essential after a change has been approved?

Question130: What is a key role of the project manager?

Question131: Which one of the following best describes users?

Question132: How does having a business case help an organisation?

Question133: How is it determined whether a deliverable conforms to its requirements and configuration information?

Question134: Which of the following is an activity in a typical configuration management process?

Question135: If planning a meeting where there were likely to be stakeholders with widely different levels of knowledge and experience attending, what practical proactive measure could the project manager take to reduce the impact of communication barriers?

Question136: The group whose remit is to set the strategic direction of a project is commonly known as:

Question137: A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for approving or rejecting changes to the project baselines, is referred to as the:

Question138: PESTLE analysis covers the following areas:

Question139: A review most closely linked to the phases Of the project life cycle could be described as a:

Question140: When effectively implemented, what is one of the key roles of governance?

Question141: Which Of the following might be a probable cause to consider early project closure?

Question142: On examining a particular risk in the project there is some uncertainty among the project team of how important this risk is to the project. How would you advise the team on how the significance of the risk is to be determined?

Question143: In project management quality is best defined as:

Question144: What is defined as "the ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose"?

Question145: Which of the following is a part of change control?

Question146: Where in the project life cycle would the project manager typically be appointed?

Question147: The combination of which two structures creates the responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)?

Question148: Which one of the following statements is true?

Question149: The primary purpose of a milestone in a project is to show:

Question150: What estimating method is most commonly used in the definition phase Of the project life cycle?

Question151: What is meant by the term programme management?

Question152: Scope management in an iterative life cycle would ensure that:

Question153: What benefit justifies expending resources to achieve stakeholder
engagement?

Question154: How can the project manager ensure a sound stakeholder environment?