EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...

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Question1: How many of the front access card slots of the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR-12 router are dedicated for redundant common equipment?

Question2: SAPs may be a port, a port with a specific VLAN tag in the case of an Ethernet port, or a port with a specific Circuit ID in the case of ATM or Frame Relay.

Question3: Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the development of the OSI Reference Model?

Question4: The statement below describes which of the following activities?
"A set of tasks that moves a packet from its entry into an IP network to its exit from the IP network."

Question5: How does a VPRN service avoid the problem overlapping IP addresses from different customers?

Question6: (Click the Exhibit Button below) An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the following components:
- Four 24-port hubs & Two 16-port switches
How many broadcast domains are on this LAN?

Question7: Which of the following describes an IP filter on the Nokia 7750 SR?

Question8: Multiple SAPs may be defined on the same physical port and may be used for different services.

Question9: Which Ethernet frame field does the receiver use to verify the integrity of the received bits?

Question10: How is Ethernet II different from Ethernet 802.3?

Question11: Given the following (Network address: 208.40.224.0, Network prefix: /28.) What is the address range, including the network and broadcast addresses, for the fourth sub-network?

Question12: A set of tasks that move a packet from its entry into an IP network to its exit from the IP network. This describes:

Question13: A Class C network is defined by a:

Question14: Why is the address field in a PPP header always set to "11111111"?

Question15: Which of the following protocols can be used to force traffic from router R2 to use the direct link to router R4?

Question16: What information is used to separate VLANs on a VLAN trunk that connects multiple VLANs?

Question17: How does LDP select the path used for an LSP?

Question18: The sequence numbers are used by TCP to ensure that the data receive is provided to the application in the correct order.

Question19: Which of the following statements best describe the purpose of UDP? (Choose two)

Question20: In an MPLS network, which device is responsible for taking an unlabeled packet and encapsulating it with an MPLS label?

Question21:
What type of BGP sessions does router R2 need to establish in order to reach networks 192.168.1.0/27 and 192.168.5.0/27?

Question22: Which ATM adaptation layer is commonly used for transporting IP datagrams or non-real time data?

Question23: What is the sequence of messages sent by a host when it attempts to ping a destination for which it has no Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache entry?

Question24: Which type of IP address contains the network number and all 1's for the host address?

Question25: In the diagram, R3 receives an LSA with sequence number 112 from R7 and installs it in its link state database. 10 ms. Later it receives a copy of the same LSA with a sequence number of 111 from R1. What does R3 do with the LSA from R1?

Question26: On the Nokia 7750 SR, which key displays all command options and their descriptions?

Question27: With a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the IP addresses below are valid host addresses?
(Choose all that apply)

Question28: A VPWS service maintains a MAC Forwarding Database (FDB) for Ethernet SAPs.

Question29: Which of the following statements is TRUE about ICMP?

Question30: In the diagram, what type of BGP session is established between the routers of AS 2002?

Question31: Which application below would be likely to use UDP?

Question32: Which technologies can be used with Ethernet switches to achieve redundancy? (Choose two)

Question33: Which of the following is a characteristic of Link State protocols?

Question34: Which of the following statements are TRUE about the Alcatel-Lucent SR 7750? (Choose 2)

Question35: Which statement best describes an SDP?

Question36: Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button). Router 1 installs network D in its routing table following a dynamic routing update from Router 2. Which of the following describes the information that will be installed in the routing table?

Question37: Hosts in the same IP network share which common address feature?

Question38: Which field in the TCP header is used by the receiver to indicate how many segments it can receive?

Question39: Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Ethernet?

Question40: What is the purpose of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model?

Question41: Given the associated prefix value, which of the following is a valid host address?

Question42: What is the purpose of TCP flow control?

Question43: Address summarization reduces the routing table size by:

Question44: Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a VPWS service?

Question45: What happens next after an incoming packet is de-encapsulated from the Layer 2 frame in an Alcatel- Lucent 7750 router?

Question46: What is the function of a Routing Table Manager (RTM)?

Question47: Which of the following IP header fields contains information that indicates whether routers are allowed to fragment a packet?

Question48: Which two protocols are used for the dynamic signaling of MPLS labels (Choose two)?

Question49: The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host addresses will be obtained with this mask?

Question50: How is Ethernet II different from Ethernet 802.3?

Question51: Public IP address spaces are distributed by which of the following organizations?

Question52: The TiMOS-m.n.Y.Z software image file is software that:

Question53: Which of the following are correct statements about MPLS labels? (Choose 3)

Question54: What bit pattern identifies the network address in the subnet mask?

Question55: What is available for auto completion of commands within the CLI on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR Service Router?

Question56: On what type of device/router is a Service Access Point (SAP) defined?

Question57: An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the components shown in the diagram. How many collision domains are on this LAN?

Question58: Which of the following statements about OSPF routing protocol is FALSE?

Question59: Which of the following is an important advantage of protocol layering? (Choose two)

Question60: Which of the following is the best description of well known ports?

Question61: What protocol is used by ping to verify IP network reachability?

Question62: Which of the following best describes the function of the service label?

Question63: From a customer's perspective, how does a VPRN service operate?

Question64: What must occur before two hosts can exchange data using TCP?

Question65: Which device is responsible for removing the MPLS label before the packet reaches the CE device?

Question66: The IANA is responsible for:

Question67: Using Q-in-Q Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) stacking, how does a carrier differentiate one customers traffic from that of another?

Question68: What metric does a link state protocol use to choose the best path to a destination network?

Question69: Which statement best describes how the internet evolved?

Question70: Which of the following best describes the function of an ARP cache within the same subnet?

Question71: Click the Exhibit Button below:

An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the components shown in the diagram below:
How many broadcast and collision domains are on this LAN?

Question72: How many DS-3 frames can be transported in an OC-3 frame?

Question73: Which of the following are NOT examples of a VPN service offered on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
Choose two.

Question74: Router R5 receives four route updates for the same prefix 10.10.10.1/32. Which of the four routes will be installed in R5's routing table?

Question75: Which of the following is a private IP network address reserved by the IANA?

Question76: In the diagram, what type of BGP session is established between the routers of AS 65001 and AS 2002?

Question77: Where would you expect to find a P router in a service provider's network?

Question78: Which statement best describes a SAP?

Question79: What distance is supported using CAT-5 cabling for 10/100/1000 TX?

Question80: Which of the following are examples of Time Division Multiplexing (Choose two)?

Question81: Which compact flash on a Control/Switch processor of an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 router stores the runtime image and running configuration?

Question82: Which of the following SAP types can be associated to a VPWS? (Choose 3)

Question83: A network with address 208.40.224.0/24 is divided into /28 subnets. What is the host address range of the fourth subnetwork?

Question84: With which of the following log destinations does an event log disappear when you log off a Nokia 7750 SR?

Question85: Router R3 receives an LSA with the sequence number 111 from router R4 and then receives another copy of the LSA with a sequence number 112 from router R2. What does router R3 do with the LSA from R2?

Question86: Which of the following is NOT a field in a TCP header?

Question87: What problems was Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily designed to solve? (Choose two):

Question88: Which field in the IP routing table contains the name or address of the neighbour that advertised the prefix to the router?

Question89: What is the preference value in the routing table used for?

Question90: Which network was created to replace ARPANET?

Question91: Which of the following best describes the operation of the Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)?

Question92: The method by which Ethernet frames are associated to a specific VLAN is referred to as:

Question93: How does the Transport Layer identify which application is to receive the data?

Question94: What is the meaning of carrier sense in the CSMA/CD algorithm?

Question95: Which of the following is IANA responsible for?

Question96: A network administrator is creating a subnet plan for the address 172.16.0.0/16. The network must support
459 hosts on each subnet while providing the maximum number of subnets. What subnet mask should be used?

Question97: Which of the following are considered Virtual Private Network (VPN) technologies? (Choose 3)

Question98: Which of the following best describes an autonomous system?

Question99: What happens in a TCP session if a segment is not acknowledged within a certain time period?

Question100: What is the behavior of a typical Ethernet switch when it receives a frame with a uncast destination MAC address? (Choose two)

Question101: Which of the following protocols belongs to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose 2)

Question102: Choose two true statements that characterize Link State Routing

Question103: Which field in the TCP header is used by the receiver to indicate the number of segments it can receive?

Question104: Complete the following sentence: The introduction of the subnet address added another:

Question105: To transmit its segments of data across the network TCP uses the services of which layer?

Question106: What kind of information can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client receive?

Question107: Which of the following statements are TRUE about the Alcatel-Lucent SR 7750? (Choose 2)

Question108: Which of the following describes the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR Input/Output Module (IOM)?

Question109: Which of the following is a characteristic of a subnet created with a /31 prefix?

Question110: Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button). Router 1 installs network D in its routing table following a dynamic routing update from Router 2. Which of the following describes the information that will be installed in the routing table?

Question111: If a customer requires a multipoint layer 2 VPN service between three or more locations which VPN service is best suited for this customer?

Question112: What are the tasks of the Routing Table Manager (RTM)? Choose two

Question113: What is the most specific aggregate prefix for the following 4 subnets?
100.1.1.4/30
100.1.1.8/30
100.1.1.12/30
100.1.1.16/30

Question114: What is the purpose of the source and destination ports in the TCP header?

Question115: Which organization eventually became the standards body for IP and related protocols?

Question116: Based on the network diagram (click on exhibit), Router 1 installs the network D in its routing table, based on a dynamic routing update from Router 2. Which of the following describes the information that will be installed in the routing table?

Question117: Which of the following are correct statements about MPLS labels (Choose three)?

Question118: Which ATM adaptation layer is usually used for connectionless data service?

Question119: What does a VPLS solution look like from a customers perspective?

Question120:
Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button), what is the next-hop used on R1 to setup a static route to the network on CR1?

Question121: Which transport protocol and port number is used by BGP to establish and maintain a peering session with other BGP speakers?

Question122: Which of the following involves grouping a number of routes with common prefixes into a single route advertisement?

Question123: The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host addresses will you obtain with this mask?

Question124: Which is the public AS in the diagram?

Question125: Which of the following is TRUE regarding routers R2 and R3 in the pictured MPLS network?

Question126: Which of the following mediums can be used in a VPWS when defining SAPs (Select three)?

Question127: Which of the following is NOT a function of TCP?

Question128: Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button).

R2 wants to connect a host on 192.168.2.0/24 behind CR1. What is the correct next-hop to use, assuming R1 is configured correctly?

Question129: Which of the following statements regarding TCP is TRUE?

Question130: A typical Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR Media Dependent Adapter (MDA) interfaces with: