Question1: An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
Question2: Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?
Question3: A project manager is reviewing the change requests, deliverables, and the project plan in Which project management process does this review belong?
Question4: Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?
Question5: Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:
Question6: Which of the following must be included in the risk register when the project manager completes the Identify Risks process?
Question7: A project manager is launching an information system to provide a lessons learned database. This action is necessary for recipients to access content at their own discretion. Which communication method is described?
Question8: At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:
Question9: A software development team is pulling work from its backlog to be performed immediately as they become available. What emerging practice for project scheduling is the team using?
Question10: Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?
Question11: The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:
Question12: The project manager needs to manage a critical issue immediately, and this requires action from the upper management of a specific stakeholder group. Which plan should plan the project manager consult?
Question13: Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?
Question14: How many Project Management Process Groups are there?
Question15: Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?
Question16: What should a project manager use to determine how much money is needed to complete a project?
Question17: When the business objectives of an organization change, project goals need to be:
Question18: What are the objectives of Initiation processes?
Question19: Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?
Question20: When should quality planning be performed?
Question21: The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:
Question22: Which subsidiary management plan.... during the project ilfe cycle?
Which Subsidiary management plan would a project manager create to manage Information dissemination during the project life cycle?
Question23: A project manager is formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables. What is an input to this process?
Question24: The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:
Question25: What is main purpose of Project Quantity Management?
Question26: The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?
Question27: Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?
Question28: Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:
Question29: Which item is an example of personnel assessment?
Question30: A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:
Question31: Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:
Question32: Which procurement management process includes obtaining seller response, seller selection, and contract awarding?
Question33: An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
Question34: Which component of the project management plan should be updated if a change occurs?
Question35: Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?
Question36: Which group of inputs will a project manager use during the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process?
Question37: The following is a network diagram for a project.
The total float for the project is how many days?
Question38: What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?
Question39: What is the first step in the Stakeholder Management process?
Question40: Which of the following lists represents the outputs of the Monitor Communications process?
Question41: Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?
Question42: The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?
Question43: Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?
Question44: An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:
Question45: Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?
Question46: Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:
Question47: How is the Project Scope Management process different in agile and adaptive projects then In traditional projects?
Question48: The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:
Question49: Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?
Question50: An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:
Question51: A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?
Question52: Which is the best way for a project manager to ensure efficient and frequent communication with management and stakeholders in an agile/adaptive environment?
Question53: Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?
Question54: To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:
Question55: Which tasks should a project manager accomplish in order to manage project scope correctly?
Question56: Which document can help a project manager to leverage historical project information?
Question57: Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?
Question58: A project receives budget approval, but the risk of extra costs is expected. Which of these inputs should the project manager check in order to make a qualitative risk analysis?
Question59: Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?
Question60: Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?
Question61: Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?
Question62: What are the project management processes associated with project quantity management?
Question63: Which project documents can determine the budget?
Question64: Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?
Question65: Most experienced project managers know that:
Question66: The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:
Question67: An input of the Control Schedule process is the:
Question68: Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?
Question69: The stakeholder register is an output of:
Question70: The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?
Question71: What process is used to identify quality requirements and/or standards for a project and its deliverables'?
Question72: What tools or techniques can be used in all cost management processes'?
Question73: Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?
Question74: The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:
Question75: The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:
Question76: Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
Question77: A project team conducts regular standup meetings to keep everyone updated on what each one of them is working on. What type of communication is this?
Question78: As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?
Question79: A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:
Question80: Which of the following lists represents trends and emerging practices in Project Risk Management?
Question81: What is one of the main purposes of the project charter?
Question82: Organizations perceive risks as:
Question83: Which item is a cost of conformance?
Question84: What scenario describes when a project must be created due to market demand?
Question85: A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:
Question86: What important qualities should project managers possess for strategic and business management?
Question87: While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?
Question88: Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?
Question89: Which statement describes the Monitor Communications process?
Question90: Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:
Question91: The following is a network diagram for a project.
The free float for Activity H is how many days?
Question92: In which project risk management process is the data analysis technique not used?
Question93: In a preliminary meeting for a project, team members decide to execute the project with methodology A finance team member wants to know how project cost will be determined at this early stage. How will the project team determine project cost?
Question94: What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?
Question95: Which is the correct hierarchy in a project environment, from most to least inclusive?
Question96: Once the make-or-buy analysis is completed, which document defines the project delivery method?
Question97: A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?
Question98: Which of the following is a category of organizational process assets?
Question99: A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:
Question100: To which process is work performance information an input?
Question101: Which factors should be considered for cross-cultural communication?
Question102: What method for categorizing stakeholders is suitable for small projects with simple relationships among stakeholders'?
Question103: Which action is included in the Control Costs process?
Question104: Make-or-buy analysis is a tool and technique of which process?
Question105: A project manager is searching for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily resolve a conflict. What conflict management technique is described in this situation?
Question106: A project manager is assigned to a strategic project. Senior management asks the project manager to give a presentation in order to request support that will ensure the success of the project.
Which entities will the project manager attempt to influence?
Question107: Which is the order of steps in the Procurement Management process?
Question108: Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?
Question109: The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:
Question110: Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?
Question111: Which is a key skill set in PMI's Talent Triangle?
Question112: The project management plan requires the acquisition of a special part available from a supplier located abroad. Which source selection method is being used?
Question113: Typical outcomes of a project include:
Question114: Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
Question115: Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?
Question116: Which of the following is an example of an organizational system that is arranged based on the job being performed?
Question117: The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?
Question118: Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?
Question119: The project manager is dividing the project scope into smaller pieces, and repeating this process until no more subdivisions are required. At this point the project manager is able to estimate costs and activities for each element.
What are these elements called?
Question120: Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?
Question121: Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?
Question122: Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?
Question123: A Project manager received a change request from a key stakeholder, documented it reviewed it with the team, and then presented if for decision. What was project manager trying to do?
Question124: A project manager is working on the communications management plan. Which of these documents are inputs to consider?
Question125: The project manager has following information about duration for an activity:
* Most likely [tM] - 15 days
* Pessimistic [tP] - 20 days
* Optimistic [tO] - 10 days
What is the estimated duration of this activity, according to the triangular distribution technique?
Question126: Projects programs subsidiary portfolios.... objectives refer to?
Projects, programs, subsidiary portfolios, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives refers to?
Question127: Which organizational process asset can make an impact on the outcome of a project?
Question128: Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?
Question129: In agile projects while performing scope management. What is the definition of requirements
Question130: Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:
Question131: When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?
Question132: The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:
Question133: An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:
Question134: The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?
Question135: When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:
Question136: In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?
Question137: What is the key benefit of the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process?
Question138: In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?
Question139: Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?
Question140: During a project's execution phase, the project manager reviews the communications management plan for communication technology factors. What can affect the choice of communications?
Question141: One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:
Question142: A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?
Question143: Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?
Question144: Which process determines the correctness of deliverables?
Question145: What is the project manager's responsibility in Project Integration Management?
Question146: In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:
Question147: A software development team is working on a project to adapt an application to new, government-established data-privacy rules. What factor led to the creation of this project?
Question148: Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?
Question149: A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager. The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?
Question150: In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?
Question151: Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?
Question152: What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?
Question153: Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary?
Question154: Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:
Question155: Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?
Question156: What Knowledge Area must be led by the project manager and cannot be delegated to other specialists?
Question157: Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?
Question158: Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?
Question159: The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:
Question160: A new project has been set. Four main stakeholders besides the project manager and four other team members have been identified. How many communication channels are available?
Question161: A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:
Question162: Which of the following is example of communication tools and techniques?
Question163: Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?
Question164: What quantitative risk analysis technique is used to select the optimum course of action from a number of alternatives?
Question165: In addition to the project charter, what other artifact is produced as a result of the Develop Project Charter process'?
Question166: Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?
Question167: The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:
Question168: Which set of competencies should a project manager have?
Question169: Tailoring considerations for project scope management may include:
Question170: An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
Question171: A project manager is analyzing a few network diagrams in order to determine the minimum duration of a project. Which diagram should the project manager reference?
Question172: Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?
Question173: One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:
Question174: What are the inputs of the Estimate Costs process?
Question175: A project manager is identifying the risks of a project. Which technique should the project manager use?
Question176: What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?
Question177: Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?
Question178: At the beginning of an iteration, the team will work to determine how many of the highest-priority items on the backlog list can be delivered within the next iteration. Which of the following activities is done first?
Question179: Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
Question180: Which of these is true of project integration management?
Question181: What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?
Question182: The project manager is creating the communications management plan Which group of inputs Is required to begin?
Question183: What does leadership involve?
Question184: In a project using agile methodology, who may perform the quality control activities?
Question185: In which type of organization does the project manager have the maximum influence
Question186: Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:
Question187: External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called:
Question188: Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?
Question189: What process group establishes project scope: refines objectives, and defines the actions necessary to attain project objectives'?
Question190: In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?
Question191: How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?
Question192: Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?
Question193: In the Control Quality process, which tools and techniques techniques can be applied to verify deliverable?
Question194: Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?
Question195: A project was sent for early customer testing and the customer reported that some of the features do not features do not meet the requirements. What should the project manager have done to avoid this scenario?
Question196: When addressing roles and responsibilities, which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?
Question197: A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:
Question198: Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
Question199: Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?
Question200: What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000
Question201: Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?
Question202: In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?
Question203: When project requirements are documented in user stones then prioritized and refined just prior to construction, which approach is being used for scheduling?
Question204: Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?
Question205: A newly developed project team is working together, building trust and adjusting its work habits to support the team What stage of the Tuckman ladder does this describe?
Question206: Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible?
Question207: Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?
Question208: The project manager is working in an agile/adaptive environment. The project manager is considering different approaches for applying Project Integration Management in this environment. How can the project manager ensure that this will work for the project?
Question209: Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?
Question210: The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?
Question211: In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?
Question212: Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:
Question213: The project manager is new to the company in order to effectively manage the project, which components of the organizational governance framework does the project manager need to take into account?
Question214: Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?
Question215: A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?
Question216: Which tasks should a project manager perform in order to manage the project schedule effectively?
Question217: What can the project manager find among the factors that could lead a project to be tailored
Question218: Which three techniques can be estimate costs?
Question219: Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?
Question220: Which is the tool or technique that is used to obtain the list of activities from the work packages?
Question221: Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?
Question222: The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:
Question223: The project manager and project team are developing approximations of the cost of resources needed to complete the project work. On which process are they working?
Question224: During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?
Question225: Which are examples of processes that may be used once or at predefined points in the project life cycle?
Question226: Which of the following set of elements is part of an effective communications management plan?
Question227: In an agile or adaptive environment. when should risk be monitored and prioritized?
Question228: What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?
Question229: Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?
Question230: What communications management process enables an effective information flow among project stakeholders'?
Question231: The table represents the possible durations of a specific project task.
Using the three-point estimating technique what is the expected number of days it should take to complete the task?
Question232: Types of internal failure costs include:
Question233: Match the method for categorizing stakeholders with its corresponding description
Question234: What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?
Question235: For what project management process is work performance information an output?
Question236: A project manager is performing the procurement management process with three vendors The project team is reviewing the requests for proposal (RFPs).
What type of procurement document is the RFP?
Question237: A project manager should consider the impact of project..............manager following A project manager should consider the impact of project decisions on supporting and maintaining the product along with project results Which process is the project manager following?
Question238: It's time to perform code review on a software project that has over three million lines of code written. Which management tool should the project manager use?
Question239: What are the key tools for managing project knowledge?
Question240: Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?
Question241: Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
Question242: Which scenario is most desirable during the execution phase of a project?
Question243: What does earned value (EV) measure?
Question244: Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?
Question245: What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?
Question246: A project team is closing out a phase and updating the organizational knowledge base What organizational process asset (OPA) will the team update?
Question247: Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?
Question248: Which of the following is an example of facit knowledge?
Question249: An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:
Question250: The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?
Question251: Responsible, accountable, consult and inform (RACI) is an example of which of the following?
Question252: Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?
Question253: A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a project manager would use is:
Question254: Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?
Question255: Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?
Question256: Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?
Question257: Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?
Question258: Under which circumstances should multiple projects be grouped in a program?
Question259: Which of the following documents ate created as part of Project Integration Management?
Question260: A project manager has just completed several brainstorming sessions and has gathered the data to show commonality and differences in one single place. What technique was followed?
Question261: Which term refers to the work performed to deliver results with specified features and functions?
Question262: Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
Question263: Which of the following are components of the technical project management skill?
Question264: A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:
Question265: The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:
Question266: Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?
Question267: Which of the following items is a technique for data gathering?
Question268: Which of the following tasks is related to the perform qualitative risk analysis process?
Question269: Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?
Question270: Which of the following is used as an input to prepare a cost management plan?
Question271: Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?
Question272: Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?
Question273: Which of the in an adaptive project environment, which action helps the project manager?
Question274: What is the primary purpose of Project Scope Management?
Question275: The diagram below is an example of a:
Question276: Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?
Question277: In which of the Risk Management processes is the project charter used as an input?
Question278: When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?
Question279: Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties?
Question280: When can we say that a project is completed?
Question281: Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:
Question282: Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?
Question283: A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:
Question284: What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?
Question285: Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?
Question286: What is the main purpose of Project Quality Management?
Question287: The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?
Question288: What internal enterprise environmental factor (EEF) can impact a project?
Question289: Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?
Question290: Match the process with its corresponding process group.
Question291: During what project management process does the project team begin identifying risks?
Question292: A project manager is updating their CV or resume and realizes that they need to improve skills related to expertise in the industry and organizational knowledge. Which dimension of PMI's Talent Triangle best relates to this need to improve?
Question293: A project manager held a meeting and listed all team members' ideas for improving the product on a white board. What data gathering technique did the project manager apply?
Question294: A project is in progress and about to move to a different phase, according to the plan. This will be a good opportunity for the project manager to:
Question295: A project lifecycle is defined as:
Question296: To ensure stakeholder satisfaction; identified stakeholder needs should all be
Question297: Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?
Question298: Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:
Question299: Which is an example of an internal enterprise environmental factor?
Question300: What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?
Question301: What risk response strategy involves removing high- risk scope elements from a project?
Question302: Which statement summarizes the role of the change control board?
Question303: What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?
Question304: Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:
Question305: During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?
Question306: A project team identifies defects that will require a modification to a tool's functionality. What process should the project manager follow to obtain stakeholder buy-in?
Question307: Select three processes that are associated with Project Schedule Management.
Question308: Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?
Question309: A project charter is an output of which Process Group?
Question310: Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?
Question311: Which behavior is a management trait?
Question312: Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?
Question313: Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?
Question314: A project manager has to share a status report with a new stakeholder and is trying to determine the level of detail to include in the report. Which document best details the information the project manager needs lo make this decision?
Question315: At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?
Question316: Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?
Question317: A project has an estimated duration of 10 months with a total budget of US$220,000. At the end of the fifth month, it is estimated that at completion, the project will incur US$250,000. If the actual cost (AC) calculated is US$150,000, what is the earned value (EV) of the project?
Question318: What should a project manager consider to address the full delivery life cycle for large projects?
Question319: Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?
Question320: Which actions should a project manager follow to manage stakeholders?
Question321: Which statement about identification and engagement of stakeholders during a project is correct?
Question322: What CPI > 1 and SPI < 1 mean?
Question323: Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?
Question324: Select two key benefits of the Control Procurements process
Question325: Company A has just been notified about a new legal requirement for its business operations. What is the classification of this item?
Question326: Which is a major component of an agreement?
Question327: The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:
Question328: Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:
Question329: Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?
Question330: Which is the appropriate tool to identify the possible correlation two elements in aprocess?
Question331: A project manager is working in an environment where requirements are not very clear and may change during the project. In addition, the project has several stakeholders and is technically complex.
Which strategies should the project manager take into account for risk management in this environment?
Question332: A project reports an earned value (EV) of USS45 for work completed with an actual cost (AC) of US$40. What is the cost performance index (CPI)?
Question333: When should Project Risk Management be conducted?
Question334: Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?
Question335: Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?
Question336: Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?
Question337: Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?
Question338: Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?
Question339: Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?
Question340: Which process is engaged when a proiect learn inember makes a change to project budget with the project manager's approval?
Question341: What is an example of a technical project management skill?
Question342: Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?
Question343: What do top project managers do to maximize their sphere of influence within a project team?
Question344: After defining activities in project schedule management, which processes should a project manager follow?
Question345: An input to the Control Quality process is:
Question346: Which is a list of organizational systems that may have an impact on a project?
Question347: Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?
Question348: Which process is engaged when a project team member makes a change to project budget with project manager's approval
Question349: Success is measured by benefits realization for a:
Question350: A project team of telecommuters located in three different time zones regularly misses project deadlines Daily meetings often start and end with the same person talking and the rest of the team listening The project manager determines that communication among team members must be addressed.
What communication step is missing from the daily meetings?
Question351: A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:
Question352: A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:
Question353: The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:
Question354: An output of the Create WBS process is:
Question355: Match the project life cycle type with its corresponding definition.
Question356: The following is a network diagram for a project.
What is the critical path for the project?
Question357: The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:
Question358: Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:
Question359: Product requirements specify a functionality that depends upon expertise that is unavailable internally. What process should be implemented to generate a make-or-buy decision?
Question360: Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?
Question361: What is an emerging practice in stakeholder engagement?
Question362: Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?
Question363: The project manager is looking at a precedence diagram.... the duration of this task?
The project manager is looking at a precedence diagram and needs to report back about the project status The total duration of the task is ten days, and both Activity A and B need be completed. Activity A has a duration of six days, and activity B has a duration of four days Activity B has a finish-to-start relationship with activity A Under current circumstances, activity A will take about seven days to complete.
What is the outcome of the duration of this task'?
Question364: The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:
Question365: What should a project manager do to prepare a risk management plan with a lot of technical uncertainty?
Question366: Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?
Question367: A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?
Question368: Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?
Question369: It you established a contingency reserve including time, money, and resources, how are you handling risk?
Question370: The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:
Question371: A project manager needs to request outside support......manager need to create A project manager needs to request outside support for a statement ot work (SOW) that is not precise. Which kind of contract does the project manager need to create?
Question372: In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:
Question373: Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?
Question374: When is a Salience Model used?
Question375: Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?
Question376: In a functional organization, the director of an important stakeholder business group expressed concern to a line manager about the progress of the project. What should the line manager do next?
Question377: Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?
Question378: Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?
Question379: What is the best tool to calculate the critical path on a project?
Question380: Which of these is true project integration management?
Question381: An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?
Question382: Risk exists the moment that a project is:
Question383: Match the life cycle type to when its requirements are defined.
Question384: The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:
Question385: In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?
Question386: Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?
Question387: The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?
Question388: Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?
Question389: The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:
Question390: What is the purpose of the project schedule management.
Question391: Which stakeholder approves a project's result?
Question392: Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?
Question393: Project management processes ensure the:
Question394: How can a project manager determine if the project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures?
Question395: Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?
Question396: During what project management process does the project manager invest the most effort into creating the work breakdown structure (WBS)?
Question397: The definition of operations is a/an:
Question398: What organizational process asset (OPA) might impact a project's outcome?
Question399: Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?
Question400: Which of the following are outputs from the process of creating a work breakdown structure (WBS)?
Question401: Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?
Question402: A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?
Question403: A project manager requesting industry groups and consultants to recommend project intervention is relying on:
Question404: The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:
Question405: What behavior refers to leadership style?
Question406: Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?
Question407: Outputs of the Control Communications process include:
Question408: In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:
Question409: Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?
Question410: The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:
Question411: Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?
Question412: A project manager is experiencing a project with a high degree of change. Which type of stakeholder engagement does this project require?
Question413: How should a project manager plan communication for a project which has uncertain requirements?
Question414: What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?
Question415: A project team submits a weekly progress report to the project manager. The project manager consolidates the same report and sends a complete progress report to the stakeholders. What is this an example of?
Question416: Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:
Question417: Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?
Question418: What is one of the main purposes of the project chatter?
Question419: What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?
Question420: A team receives four different requests from separate stakeholders related to one application Match each requirement with its corresponding type of change request.
Question421: In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents requirements?
Question422: Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?
Question423: A project team member identifies a possibility......the team member's idea?
A project team member identifies a possibility of increasing project performance by adopting an innovative approach to a proposed solution. This also will save resources for the company and increase stakeholder satisfaction.
How should the project manager evaluate the team member's idea?
Question424: What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?
Question425: Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?
Question426: What is a characteristic of the relationship among projects, programs, and portfolios?
Question427: An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:
Question428: Match each dimension of the communications management plan to its corresponding focus.
Question429: Match each Project Cost Management process with its appropriate keyword
Question430: Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?
Question431: Which of the following is an example of an internal factor that influences the outcome of the project?
Question432: Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
Question433: Which of the following technology platforms is most effective for sharing information when managing virtual project teams?
Question434: The chart below is an example of a:
Question435: After winning a large government contract, a company needs to hire a portfolio manager What vital qualification should candidates possess?
Question436: What benefit does the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process offer?
Question437: Match the project manager's sphere of influence with the associated primary role.
Question438: Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
Question439: Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?
Question440: The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:
Question441: The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?
Question442: If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?
Question443: In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:
Question444: Why is required in a project?
Question445: Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?
Question446: A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?
Question447: What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed?
Question448: What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?
Question449: The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:
Question450: A project manager needs to tailor the Project Cost Management process. Which considerations should the project manager apply?
Question451: Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?
Question452: What can a project1 manager review to understand the status of project?
Question453: Match each tool or technique with its corresponding Project Cost Management process.
Question454: An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as: