EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...

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Question1: Which mechanism allows network traffic to flow into the virtual lab while protecting the production environment from the contents of the virtual lab?

Question2: It was decided to set up Veeam Backup & Replication to ensure parallel tasks do not impact production storage availability. Which parameters should be adjusted in the I/O Control section of the menu to do this?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question3: Why is it recommended to install Veeam ONE before Veeam Backup & Replication?

Question4: In Veeam Backup & Replication, encryption works at which of the following levels: (Choose three.)

Question5: Is it possible to create an active full backup manually?

Question6: Is it possible to disable parallel processing for only one replication job configured to use the Direct Data Transfer mode?

Question7: Your Replication job is using a Backup Job as the source instead of production. Since the last run of the Replication Job, the source backup job ran three times, producing three new restore points. Now the Replication Job is run again. How many restore points will the replica from a backup job create?

Question8: Which services are installed on every Veeam Backup Proxy server? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question9: Choose the correct statement about undoing the failover:

Question10: A Backup Administrator needs to create an offsite backup job and wants to store the backups on a NFS share at the remote site. Which of the following actions would result in the most optimal configuration?

Question11: Which of the following describes Veeam Data Mover Service function most accurately? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question12: If a VM is restored to its original location via Full VM restore while the original VM still exists, the original VM will be:

Question13: If the network is disconnected during the data transfer process, the "resume on disconnect" feature will NOT reestablish the connection for which of the following Veeam Backup & Replication jobs?

Question14: In order to delete a backup repository from the Veeam Backup & Replication UI, you must ensure that:

Question15: Which of the following describes the Partial Site Failover functionality of Veeam Cloud Connect?

Question16: Which of the following is required to enable Tape Parallel Processing?

Question17: Under what circumstance should the Preferred Networks settings be altered?

Question18: Which of the following Veeam Backup & Replication jobs can leverage storage snapshots? (Choose two.)

Question19: A Backup Administrator needs to create a fully functional VM at a secondary location in an isolated network, and the VM should not require manual editing or modifications to the configuration. Which of the following jobs could the Backup Administrator use? (Choose two.)

Question20: After you selected Incremental mode in the job settings, how do you ensure the forever forward incremental backup mode is configured?

Question21: Which additional metadata is captured when backing up vCloud Director VMs?

Question22: After a successful replica failover, you decide that you want to switch back to the original VM and permanently transfer the changes that occurred in the replica VM while it was in the Failover State. Which course of action should you choose?

Question23: Which of the following statements is true regarding the Veeam Cloud Connect feature?

Question24: When is it NOT possible to use the single-host configuration for SureReplica verification?

Question25: When might a Veeam Backup Administrator choose to use Veeam Management Pack instead of Veeam ONE for monitoring and reporting?

Question26: What advantage would be served by using Backup from Storage Snapshots on NetApp SnapMirror or SnapVault?

Question27: Which of the following conditions require Microsoft VSS rather than VMware quiescence? (Choose two.)

Question28: What are some of the benefits of using replication from HP, NetApp or EMC storage snapshot compared to the regular replication process? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question29: Which of the following statements are true in regards to the Veeam plug-in for VMware vSphere Web Client? (Choose two.)

Question30: A Backup Administrator is looking to achieve minimal RPO. Which of the following setups is most appropriate?

Question31: Which statement best describes Virtual Lab Manager?

Question32: Which backup mode uses the file extension .vib for incremental backup files?

Question33: Which of the following statements are true when utilizing a Microsoft Hyper-V Off-Host Backup Proxy?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options.)

Question34: How can a Backup Administrator configure user permissions and restrict those permissions to tasks such as Guest OS file restores or search for Guest OS files?

Question35: Which of the following statements are true about Veeam Backup Repositories?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options.)

Question36: Can Universal Application-Item Recovery (U-AIR) be performed in the absence of a Virtual Lab for a VMware vSphere environment?

Question37: Which of the following statements are true when backing up a Microsoft Exchange 2016 server with Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose two.)

Question38: Which types of data are included in a Veeam Backup & Replication configuration backup?
(Choose the 3 appropriate options.)

Question39: When should you consider disabling multithreaded data transfer?

Question40: What is Veeam vPower NFS Service used for?

Question41: HOTSPOT
Match the following Veeam resource with the corresponding usage example:
Hot Area:

Question42: When a file is copied using a backup copy job, which of the following should be the same for the restore point on the source backup repository, and the restore point on the target backup repository?

Question43: Which of the following best describes the Snapshot Hunter feature?

Question44: Does the Planned Failover feature shut down the production VM?

Question45: What would be the primary benefit of replication from backup files compared to a regular replication process?

Question46: Which is the main advantage of using SAN snapshots for backups?

Question47: HOTSPOT
Match each of the following entities that Veeam Backup & Replication uses to manage tapes with its definition.
Hot Area:

Question48: Which of the following are true regarding Quick Backup? (Choose two.)

Question49: A Backup Administrator configures a backup copy job containing several VMs each of which are backed up by different daily jobs. How many backup files will be created as the result of the initial successful run of the backup copy job? (Choose two.)

Question50: Which job type cannot be set to use job-level encryption? (Choose two).

Question51: Veeam Backup & Replication provides specific integration with which the following deduplicating storage appliances? (Choose three.)

Question52: Which of the following are true regarding a synthetic full backup as compared to an active full backup?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question53: Which type of jobs can be sent to tape using a "Backup to Tape" job? (choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question54: Which roles are performed by the client with the remote console installed? (Choose three.)

Question55: Which recovery verification tests can be executed when verifying both backups and replicas? (Choose three.)

Question56: How does Veeam Backup & Replication check backup consistency for VMs verified by the SureBackup job?

Question57: Where is the Veeam CBT filter driver installed?

Question58: How are VMware replica restoring points stored at the target host?

Question59: Which of the following best describes VMware Tools quiescence?

Question60: Which of the following suggestions is considered best practices for the Veeam Backup & Replication integration with Dell EMC Data Domain?

Question61: Which Veeam Backup & Replication feature can be leveraged to perform a manual verification of a virtual machine backup?

Question62: Which of the following is the extension of a configuration backup file?

Question63: Which permission roles can be assigned in Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager for delegation of responsibilities?
(Choose the 3 appropriate options.)

Question64: Which of the following is an extension for a full backup file if the Reverse Incremental Backup mode is used?

Question65: Which can be used if the user key for an encrypted backup is forgotten or lost?

Question66: When VMware vSphere CBT is not available, Veeam Backup & Replication:

Question67: Which Veeam Backup & Replication feature can be used to keep the production VM online while the production host is patched?

Question68: Which of the following is always recommended to attach to a technical support case regarding a failed Veeam Backup & Replication job?

Question69: Which HPE SAN storage systems are supported by the Backup from Storage Snapshot feature in Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose the 3 appropriate options)

Question70: When a Windows server is added to Veeam Backup & Replication using the Add Server Wizard, which components are always installed to the server?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options.)

Question71: After selecting Incremental mode in the job settings, which setting is required to ensure Forever Forward Incremental Backup Mode is configured?

Question72: Which of the following can help to reduce the amount of traffic that is sent over the network during the second run of the replication job?

Question73: When performing SureBackup recovery verification, Veeam Backup & Replication powers VMs from the Application Group according to what order?

Question74: Choose the correct statements about the Failover Plan functionality: (Choose two.)

Question75: Which of the following is leveraged as part of the "Network Mode" transport mode in Veeam Backup & Replication for data transfer from vSphere environments?

Question76: Which predefined test performed on the Application Group during verification differs between SureReplica and SureBackup jobs?

Question77: Which prerequisites are necessary in order to complete a configuration restore on a Veeam Backup & Replication v9.5 Backup Server?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options.)

Question78: Which of these functionalities relies on the guest OS file system indexing?

Question79: If the Backup Administrator has to perform a backup over a high-latency, low bandwidth network link, the disruptions to the backup process can be avoided by:

Question80: A virtual machine has been permanently deleted in production but a replica is running in the Disaster Recovery data center. Which strategy would failback the virtual machine to production while saving both recovery time and network utilization?

Question81: What other recovery mechanism can be used to restore quest os files if the virtual machine guest os file system is not supported by Veeam Backup & Replication Windows Instant File Level Recovery or Multi-OS File Level Recovery?

Question82: Which of the following statements is true when a Virtual Lab is deployed without configuring a Proxy Appliance?

Question83: Which editions of Veeam Availability Suite fully support Native Tape and vCloud Director?

Question84: Which of the following restores can be performed using Veeam Explorer for Storage Snapshots? (Choose four.)

Question85: Which of the following is correct regarding Direct NFS Access transport mode? (Choose two.)

Question86: Which of the following applications should be backed up using pre-freeze and post-thaw scripts to ensure transactional consistency?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options.)

Question87: Which of the following are benefits utilizing the Backup from Storage Snapshots feature when backing up virtual machines from a VMware vSphere environment? (Choose two.)

Question88: Which of the following is the extension of a Veeam Backup & Replication configuration backup file?

Question89: A Backup Administrator has setup a Backup Job, utilizing Reverse Incremental backup mode. After the first successful backup, an On-Demand Sandbox is deployed and started. How will the On-Demand Sandbox be affected if the Backup Job is started?

Question90: Which of the following should be taken into account when estimating the amount of disk space necessary to store backups? (Choose two.)

Question91: What is the purpose of scheduling a virtual synthesized full backup for tape jobs? (Choose two.)

Question92: A Backup Administrator has restored a VM, on Hyper-V, using Instant VM Recovery. Which additional step should be taken to finalize the Instant VM Recovery process?

Question93: If the deduplication settings are changed for an existing job, when will the new settings be applied?

Question94: Which data is NOT included in a configuration backup?

Question95: When is Veeam-provided (software level) encryption used for tape media?

Question96: Which of the following restore options is NOT available to an administrator account in Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager?

Question97: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using Veeam Backup & Replication and EMC Data Domain with DD Boost integration compared to no DD Boost integration?

Question98: Which of the following refers to the situation when the retention is breached on a forever forward incremental backup?

Question99: vPower technology is used to enable which of the following features? (Choose three.)

Question100: Which of the following options should be selected in order to temporarily bring up a production VM that has been previously been replicated to the DR site, while the production VM itself is brought down by a problem?

Question101: Which of the following is a prerequisite for installation of the Veeam plug-in for vSphere Web Client?