EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...

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Question1: Which Veeam Backup & Replication feature can be used to keep the production VM online while the production host is patched?

Question2: Which of the following should be taken into account when estimating the amount of disk space necessary to store backups? (Choose two.)

Question3: Which of the following is the extension of a configuration backup file?

Question4: If the network is disconnected during the data transfer process, the "Resume on Network Disconnect" feature will NOT re-establish the connection for which of the following Veeam Backup & Replication jobs?

Question5: Which of the following jobs is NOT affected by parallel processing?

Question6: Which of the following suggestions is considered best practices for the Veeam Backup & Replication integration with Dell EMC Data Domain?

Question7: Which of the following applications should be backed up using pre-freeze and post-thaw scripts to ensure transactional consistency? (Choose two.)

Question8: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using Veeam Backup & Replication and EMC Data Domain with DD Boost integration compared to no DD Boost integration?

Question9: Which transport mode uses the VMware vSphere Hot-Add feature to attach the virtual disks of a source VM to the Backup Proxy VM?

Question10: Is it possible to disable parallel processing for only one replication job configured to use the Direct Data Transfer mode?

Question11: Since the last remote replica from backup job, the source backup job ran three times, making 3 new restore points. Now the replica from backup job is run again. How many restore points will this replica from backup job create?

Question12: Which of the following is leveraged as part of the "Network Mode" transport mode in Veeam Backup & Replication for data transfer from vSphere environments?

Question13: Which of the following describes the Partial Site Failover functionality of Veeam Cloud Connect?

Question14: Which of the following restore options is NOT available to an administrator account in Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager?

Question15: When a file is copied using a backup copy job, which of the following should be the same for the restore point on the source backup repository, and the restore point on the target backup repository?

Question16: Does the Planned Failover feature shut down the production VM?

Question17: Which of the following statements are true when utilizing a Microsoft Hyper-V Off-Host Backup Proxy?
(Choose two.)

Question18: What is the lowest interval at which a replication job can be scheduled?

Question19: Which of the following actions can be performed to finalize Instant VM Recovery? (Choose two.)

Question20: Which of the following statements is true when a Virtual Lab is deployed without configuring a Proxy Appliance?

Question21: Which of the following is correct regarding Direct NFS Access transport mode? (Choose two.)

Question22: After a successful replica failover, you decide that you want to switch back to the original VM and permanently transfer the changes that occurred in the replica VM while it was in the Failover State. Which course of action should you choose?

Question23: Which of the following best describes VMware Tools quiescence?

Question24: Which of the following is always recommended to attach to a technical support case regarding a failed Veeam Backup & Replication job? (Choose two.)

Question25: If the Backup Administrator has to perform a backup over a high-latency, low bandwidth network link, the disruptions to the backup process can be avoided by:

Question26: Which of the following is the function of the guest integration proxy component?

Question27: Which is the main advantage of using SAN snapshots for backups?

Question28: Which HPE SAN storage systems are supported by the Backup from Storage Snapshot feature in Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose three.)

Question29: Which of the following is required to enable Tape Parallel Processing?

Question30: Which predefined test performed on the Application Group during verification differs between SureReplica and SureBackup jobs?

Question31: Which of the following are true regarding a synthetic full backup as compared to an active full backup?
(Choose two.)

Question32: Is it possible to create an active full backup manually?

Question33: When VMware vSphere CBT is not available, Veeam Backup & Replication:

Question34: Which mechanism allows network traffic to flow into the virtual lab while protecting the production environment from the contents of the virtual lab?

Question35: When performing SureBackup recovery verification, Veeam Backup & Replication powers VMs from the Application Group according to what order?

Question36: A Backup Administrator has setup a Backup Job, utilizing Reverse Incremental backup mode. After the first successful backup, an On-Demand Sandbox is deployed and started. How will the On-Demand Sandbox be affected if the Backup Job is started?

Question37: Which data is NOT included in a configuration backup?

Question38: Which can be used if the user key for an encrypted backup is forgotten or lost?

Question39: Which roles are performed by the client with the remote console installed? (Choose three.)

Question40: When using Forward Incremental backups on a CIFS based Backup Repository, which benefit would be realized by performing synthetic fulls rather than active fulls?

Question41: If the deduplication settings are changed for an existing job, when will the new settings be applied?

Question42: A virtual machine has been permanently deleted in production but a replica is running in the Disaster Recovery data center. Which strategy would failback the virtual machine to production while saving both recovery time and network utilization?

Question43: When should you consider disabling multithreaded data transfer?

Question44: When a Windows server is added to Veeam Backup & Replication using the Add Server Wizard, which components are always installed to the server?
(Choose two.)

Question45: Choose the correct statements about Veeam Backup & Replication. (Choose two.)

Question46: How can a Backup Administrator configure user permissions and restrict those permissions to tasks such as Guest OS file restores or search for Guest OS files?

Question47: Which type of jobs can be sent to tape using a "Backup to Tape" job? (Choose two.)

Question48: Under what circumstance should the Preferred Networks settings be altered?

Question49: Which of the following best describes the Snapshot Hunter feature?

Question50: Under certain circumstances, VMware Changed Block Tracking (CBT) may be unavailable to Veeam Backup & Replication. What effect will a lack of CBT information have on the Veeam backup job?

Question51: A Backup Administrator has restored a VM, on Hyper-V, using Instant VM Recovery. Which additional step should be taken to finalize the Instant VM Recovery process?

Question52: Veeam Explorer for Oracle offers which of the following capabilities? (Choose three.)

Question53: Which of the following statements are true when considering the Forever Forward Incremental backup method, on a NTFS-based backup repository? (Choose two.)

Question54: What is replica metadata used for?

Question55: Which of the following Veeam ONE components have a web-based UI? (Choose two.)

Question56: Where is the Veeam CBT filter driver installed?

Question57: Can Universal Application-Item Recovery (U-AIR) be performed in the absence of a Virtual Lab for a VMware vSphere environment?

Question58: Which editions of Veeam Availability Suite fully support Native Tape and vCloud Director?

Question59: Which of the following Veeam Backup & Replication jobs can leverage storage snapshots? (Choose two.)

Question60: A Backup Administrator is looking to achieve minimal RPO. Which of the following setups is most appropriate?

Question61: Which component is used by Veeam Backup & Replication to transfer data from the Veeam Backup Proxy to an HPE StoreOnce deduplication appliance?

Question62: How are VMware replica restoring points stored at the target host?

Question63: Which services are installed on every Veeam Backup Proxy server? (Choose two.)

Question64: Which permission roles can be assigned in Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager for delegation of responsibilities? (Choose three.)

Question65: Veeam Backup & Replication supports which of the following NetApp Data ONTAP modes?

Question66: If a VM is restored to its original location via Full VM restore while the original VM still exists, the original VM will be:

Question67: Which of the following editions introduces the Scale-Out Backup Repository feature?

Question68: What is the purpose of scheduling a virtual synthesized full backup for tape jobs? (Choose two.)

Question69: Which job type cannot be set to use job-level encryption? (Choose two).

Question70: Why is it recommended to install Veeam ONE before Veeam Backup & Replication?

Question71: In order to delete a backup repository from the Veeam Backup & Replication UI, you must ensure that:

Question72: Which of the following are true regarding Quick Backup? (Choose two.)

Question73: After you selected Incremental mode in the job settings, how do you ensure the forever forward incremental backup mode is configured?

Question74: Veeam Backup & Replication provides specific integration with which the following deduplicating storage appliances? (Choose three.)

Question75: When configuring an On-Demand Sandbox, when should the Backup Administrator indicate that the Application Group should keep running once the job completes?

Question76: Choose the correct statements about the Failover Plan functionality: (Choose two.)

Question77: Which of the following describes Veeam Data Mover Service function most accurately? (Choose two.)

Question78: When is Veeam-provided (software level) encryption used for tape media?

Question79: What is Veeam vPower NFS Service used for?

Question80: What other recovery mechanism can be used to restore quest os files if the virtual machine guest os file system is not supported by Veeam Backup & Replication Windows Instant File Level Recovery or Multi-OS File Level Recovery?

Question81: vPower technology is used to enable which of the following features? (Choose three.)

Question82: Which of the following refers to the situation when the retention is breached on a forever forward incremental backup?

Question83: Which prerequisites are necessary in order to complete a configuration restore on a Veeam Backup & Replication v9.5 Backup Server?
(Choose two.)

Question84: Which of the following statements are true about Veeam Backup Repositories?
(Choose two.)

Question85: What advantage would be served by using Backup from Storage Snapshots on NetApp SnapMirror or SnapVault?

Question86: Which of the following restores can be performed using Veeam Explorer for Storage Snapshots? (Choose four.)

Question87: Which of the following statements are true in regards to the Veeam plug-in for VMware vSphere Web Client? (Choose two.)

Question88: If the network is disconnected during the data transfer process, the "resume on disconnect" feature will NOT reestablish the connection for which of the following Veeam Backup & Replication jobs?

Question89: Which backup mode uses the file extension .vib for incremental backup files?

Question90: Which of the following can help to reduce the amount of traffic that is sent over the network during the second run of the replication job?

Question91: Choose the correct statement about undoing the failover:

Question92: Which of the following options should be selected in order to temporarily bring up a production VM that has been previously been replicated to the DR site, while the production VM itself is brought down by a problem?

Question93: Which types of data are included in a Veeam Backup & Replication configuration backup?
(Choose three.)

Question94: Veeam Explorer for Microsoft Active Directory offers which of the following capabilities? (Choose three.)

Question95: Which of these functionalities relies on the guest OS file system indexing?

Question96: A Backup Administrator needs to create an offsite backup job and wants to store the backups on a NFS share at the remote site. Which of the following actions would result in the most optimal configuration?

Question97: What are some of the benefits of using replication from HP, NetApp or EMC storage snapshot compared to the regular replication process? (Choose two.)

Question98: When might a Veeam Backup Administrator choose to use Veeam Management Pack instead of Veeam ONE for monitoring and reporting?

Question99: Which of the following is a prerequisite for installation of the Veeam plug-in for vSphere Web Client?

Question100: How does Veeam Backup & Replication check backup consistency for VMs verified by the SureBackup job?

Question101: It was decided to set up Veeam Backup & Replication to ensure parallel tasks do not impact production storage availability. Which parameters should be adjusted in the I/O Control section of the menu to do this?
(Choose two.)

Question102: Which of the following conditions require Microsoft VSS rather than VMware quiescence? (Choose two.)

Question103: A Backup Administrator configures a backup copy job containing several VMs each of which are backed up by different daily jobs. How many backup files will be created as the result of the initial successful run of the backup copy job? (Choose two.)