EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...

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Question1: Cloud Connect tenants can perform which of the following operations? (Choose three.)

Question2: Which of the following is always recommended to attach to a technical support case regarding a failed Veeam Backup & Replication job? (Choose two.)

Question3: When might a Veeam Backup Administrator choose to use Veeam Management Pack instead of Veeam ONE for monitoring and reporting?

Question4: After selecting Incremental mode in the job settings, which setting is required to ensure Forever Forward Incremental Backup Mode is configured?

Question5: Which is a prerequisite in order for the CRC check to be executed during a SureBackup Job?

Question6: Veeam Backup & Replication supports which of the following NetApp Data ONTAP modes?

Question7: When is it NOT possible to use the single-host configuration for SureReplica verification?

Question8: When should Veeam ONE utilize a remote Microsoft SQL Server as a backend?

Question9: Which of these functionalities relies on the guest OS file system indexing?

Question10: Which job statistics index can be used to identify the slowest component of the data path of a backup job?

Question11: Which roles are performed by the client with the remote console installed? (Choose three.)

Question12: What is the lowest interval at which a replication job can be scheduled?

Question13: Which Veeam Backup & Replication feature can be used to keep the production VM online while the production host is patched?

Question14: Which of the following is the extension of a Veeam Backup & Replication configuration backup file?

Question15: During SureBackup verification, a backed up VMware vSphere VM image remains in a read-only state. All changes that take place while the VM is running are written to redo log files that are stored
______________________. When the recovery verification process is complete, the redo logs are removed.

Question16: Which of the following is the optimal mechanism to provide multiple users with access to a VM running in a Virtual Lab?

Question17: Is it possible to disable parallel processing for only one replication job configured to use the Direct Data Transfer mode?

Question18: Does the Planned Failover feature shut down the production VM?

Question19: Which statement best describes Virtual Lab Manager?

Question20: Which prerequisites are necessary in order to complete a configuration restore on a Veeam Backup & Replication v9.5 Backup Server?
(Choose two.)

Question21: When is the full backup created in a backup copy job for each GFS retention point?

Question22: Which of the following statements regarding the Backup from Storage Snapshots feature when backing up virtual machines from a VMware vSphere environment are true? (Choose two.)

Question23: Which Dell EMC SAN storage systems are compatible with the Backup from Storage Snapshots feature in Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose two.)

Question24: Which transport mode uses the VMware vSphere Hot-Add feature to attach the virtual disks of a source VM to the Backup Proxy VM?

Question25: Which optional component is used to centrally manage multiple Veeam Backup Servers?

Question26: When using Forward Incremental backups on a CIFS based Backup Repository, which benefit would be realized by performing synthetic fulls rather than active fulls?

Question27: What is Veeam vPower NFS Service used for?

Question28: A Backup Administrator needs to create an offsite backup job. A Windows-based server is used as a repository. Which placement of the Veeam Data Mover Service(s) would result in the most optimal configuration?

Question29: Which Veeam backup & Replication functionality allows a VM to be powered on a directly from a backup file?

Question30: After a successful replica failover, you decide that you want to switch back to the original VM and permanently transfer the changes that occurred in the replica VM while it was in the Failover State. Which course of action should you choose?

Question31: Which types of data are included in a Veeam Backup & Replication configuration backup?
(Choose three.)

Question32: During the SureBackup job execution, redo logs are created for each verified VM. Where are the redo logs for the job located?

Question33: Veeam Extract utility can be used to recover VMs from a full backup file (VBK). The extract utility does not require any interaction with Veeam Backup & Replication and can be used as an independent tool on Linux and Microsoft Windows machines.
Where is Veeam Extract utility located?

Question34: Under what circumstance should the Preferred Networks settings be altered?

Question35: Is it possible to switch between backup modes when creating regular backup files?

Question36: Which of the following is an extension for a full backup file if the Reverse Incremental Backup mode is used?

Question37: What is the name of the Linux-based virtual machine used to enable communication between the production environment and the isolated networks in the Virtual Lab?

Question38: Which backup method is described below? "After a full VM backup is created, subsequent backups are incremental. Only data blocks that have changed since the last job run are backed up. All the changes are injected into the created .vbk file to rebuild it to the most recent state of a VM." (Select two.)

Question39: Which of the following is correct regarding Direct NFS Access transport mode? (Choose two.)

Question40: Your Veeam Backup & Replication environment currently has three Backup Jobs, each containing a single virtual machine with three restore points. You configure a new Backup Copy Job, add all three virtual machines and wait for the first initial copy to complete. Depending on the Simple Backup Repository configuration, how many VBK files will be created on the Simple Backup Repository? (Choose two.)

Question41: Which type of jobs can be sent to tape using a "Backup to Tape" job? (Choose two.)

Question42: Which of the following options should be selected in order to temporarily bring up a production VM that has been previously been replicated to the DR site, while the production VM itself is brought down by a problem?

Question43: Which editions of Veeam Backup & Replication include Backup from Storage Snapshots?

Question44: Which of the following are true regarding Quick Backup? (Choose two.)

Question45: Which of the following statements about the Guest Integration Proxy component is true?

Question46: How are VMware replica restoring points stored at the target host?

Question47: If the virtual machine does not have Hyper-V Integration Services installed, when is the stabilization point in a SureBackup job reached?

Question48: A Backup Administrator needs to create an offsite backup job and wants to store the backups on a NFS share at the remote site. Which of the following actions would result in the most optimal configuration?

Question49: Which procedure is an option to finalize replica failback?

Question50: Which of the following is required to enable Tape Parallel Processing?

Question51: Which is a prerequisite in order for the CRC check to be executed during a SureBackup Job?

Question52: Which of the following describes the Partial Site Failover functionality of Veeam Cloud Connect?

Question53: What are some of the benefits of using replication from HP, NetApp or EMC storage snapshot compared to the regular replication process? (Choose two.)

Question54: Which of the following best describes VMware Tools quiescence?

Question55: Choose the correct statements about the Failover Plan functionality: (Choose two.)

Question56: Can Universal Application-Item Recovery (U-AIR) be performed in the absence of a Virtual Lab for a VMware vSphere environment?

Question57: How many alarm types does Veeam ONE Business View offer?

Question58: Which of the following Veeam Backup & Replication jobs can use integration with secondary arrays as a data source?

Question59: A scale-out backup repository is configured with data locality policy. How is an extent selected during an active full backup? (Choose two.)

Question60: It was decided to set up Veeam Backup & Replication to ensure parallel tasks do not impact production storage availability. Which parameters should be adjusted in the I/O Control section of the menu to do this? (Choose two.)

Question61: Which of the following statements are true when backing up a Microsoft Exchange 2016 server with Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose two.)

Question62: Which of the following is a limitation imposed on Native Tape Support in Veeam Backup & Replication Standard Edition?

Question63: Which of the following editions introduces the Scale-Out Backup Repository feature?

Question64: Which predefined test performed on the Application Group during verification differs between SureReplica and SureBackup jobs?

Question65: Which of the following is leveraged as part of the "Network Mode" transport mode in Veeam Backup & Replication for data transfer from vSphere environments?

Question66: Which of the following is the function of the guest integration proxy component?

Question67: What is the name of the process Veeam creates for each remote console session?

Question68: Which of the following is used in order to avoid unwanted changes to VM replicas when performing verification or recovery?

Question69: Which of the following statements is true regarding the Veeam Backup & Replication integration with supported Storage Systems for VMware vSphere are true? (Choose three).

Question70: How is the cloud repository functionality licensed for virtual machines by Service Providers?

Question71: Your Replication job is using a Backup Job as the source instead of production. Since the last run of the Replication Job, the source backup job ran three times, producing three new restore points. Now the Replication Job is run again. How many restore points will the replica from a backup job create?

Question72: Once it has been deployed and data has been collected, which Veeam product can estimate when Backup Repositories will run out of disk space and will tell you how much more disk space you will need if you continue doing backups the same way?

Question73: When a Windows server is added to Veeam Backup & Replication using the Add Server Wizard, which components are always installed to the server?
(Choose two.)

Question74: Which of the following statements are true when utilizing a Microsoft Hyper-V Off-Host Backup Proxy?
(Choose two.)

Question75: When should SQL Server Standard (or higher) be deployed for the instance used by Veeam Backup & Replication instead of the SQL Server Express instance installed by default?

Question76: Where is the Veeam CBT filter driver installed?

Question77: What advantage would be served by using Backup from Storage Snapshots on NetApp SnapMirror or SnapVault?

Question78: If the Backup Administrator has to perform a backup over a high-latency, low bandwidth network link, the disruptions to the backup process can be avoided by:

Question79: Which of the following restores can be performed using Veeam Explorer for Storage Snapshots? (Choose four.)

Question80: How does Veeam Backup & Replication check backup consistency for VMs verified by the SureBackup job?

Question81: From within which of the following software products can the Veeam Backup & Replication Infrastructure be remotely monitored when plug-ins/add-ons are installed? (Choose two.)

Question82: If the network is disconnected during the data transfer process, the "Resume on Network Disconnect" feature will NOT re-establish the connection for which of the following Veeam Backup & Replication jobs?

Question83: Which Veeam Backup & Replication component or service should be added to the scenario below in order to optimize backups to an off-site CIFS share?

Question84: A Backup Administrator has restored a VM, on Hyper-V, using Instant VM Recovery. Which additional step should be taken to finalize the Instant VM Recovery process?

Question85: A Backup Administrator is looking to achieve minimal RPO. Which of the following setups is most appropriate?

Question86: Which of the following statements are true when comparing a synthetic full backup to an active full backup, on a NTFS-based Backup Repository? (Choose two.)

Question87: Which process would finalize a Full VM Recovery?

Question88: Choose the correct statement about undoing the failover:

Question89: When configuring an On-Demand Sandbox, when should the Backup Administrator indicate that the Application Group should keep running once the job completes?

Question90: Does Veeam Backup & Replication support VMware vSphere Hypervisor, a free bare-metal hypervisor?

Question91: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using Veeam Backup & Replication and EMC Data Domain with DD Boost integration compared to no DD Boost integration?

Question92: What is the stabilization point in a SureBackup job?

Question93: Veeam Explorer for Microsoft Active Directory offers which of the following capabilities? (Choose two.)

Question94: In order to delete a backup repository from the Veeam Backup & Replication UI, you must ensure that:

Question95: Which of the following describes Veeam Data Mover Service function most accurately? (Choose two.)

Question96: Which of the following jobs is NOT affected by parallel processing?

Question97: Which Veeam Backup & Replication feature can be leveraged to perform a manual verification of a virtual machine backup?

Question98: Which of the following statements are true about Veeam Backup Repositories?
(Choose two.)

Question99: When performing SureBackup recovery verification, Veeam Backup & Replication powers VMs from the Application Group according to what order?

Question100: A Backup Administrator needs to create a fully functional VM at a secondary location in an isolated network, and the VM should not require manual editing or modifications to the configuration. Which of the following jobs could the Backup Administrator use? (Choose two.)

Question101: Which of the following backup file placement policies are available for Scale-Out Backup Repository?
(Choose two.)

Question102: What other recovery mechanism can be used to restore quest os files if the virtual machine guest os file system is not supported by Veeam Backup & Replication Windows Instant File Level Recovery or Multi-OS File Level Recovery?

Question103: Which of the following statements are true in regards to the Veeam plug-in for VMware vSphere Web Client? (Choose two.)

Question104: Veeam Explorer for Oracle offers which of the following capabilities? (Choose three.)

Question105: When a file is copied using a backup copy job, which of the following should be the same for the restore point on the source backup repository, and the restore point on the target backup repository?

Question106: A Backup Administrator must perform a backup of a VM running a highly-transactional Microsoft SQL Server. Point-in-time database recovery is a requirement.
Which options must the Backup Administrator select in order for the Backup Job to provide the proper level of recovery? (Choose two.)

Question107: Which mechanism allows network traffic to flow into the virtual lab while protecting the production environment from the contents of the virtual lab?

Question108: Which of the following statements is true regarding the Veeam Cloud Connect feature?

Question109: Which of the following are true regarding a synthetic full backup as compared to an active full backup?
(Choose two.)

Question110: Since the last remote replica from backup job, the source backup job ran three times, making 3 new restore points. Now the replica from backup job is run again. How many restore points will this replica from backup job create?

Question111: Which of the following suggestions is considered best practices for the Veeam Backup & Replication integration with Dell EMC Data Domain?